Open Stack

Of course, there are almost always two routers on a subnet... (unless it is
the end of the line). What makes you think the neutron router has to be at
.1? Mine are typically .1 on the VM side (but it is totally fine to use
something else) and not .1 on the provider side.

On Fri, Jun 3, 2016 at 12:47 PM, John van Ommen <john.vanommen at gmail.com>
wrote:

> Let's say I have two networks. One network is 10.241.0.1/24, and my
> VMs are on that network. The other network is a provider network with
> a CIDR of 192.168.100.0/22.
>
> There's an illustration of what I mean here:
>
> https://developer.rackspace.com/blog/neutron-networking-l3-agent/
>
> Okay, so here's my question:
> There's a router between the two networks. Is the routing being done
> by a *physical* router, or by a *neutron* router?
>
>
> Here's the reason that I ask:
> When I set these networks up, I generally set up a neutron router
> between the first network and the second network. But in my current
> project, there's a physical router at 192.168.100.1. So it seems like
> my Neutron router would be in conflict with the physical router at
> 192.168.100.1.
>
> IE, I can't have two routers running on the same subnet. Or am I
> missing something?
>
> _______________________________________________
> Mailing list:
> http://lists.openstack.org/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/openstack
> Post to     : openstack at lists.openstack.org
> Unsubscribe :
> http://lists.openstack.org/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/openstack
>
-------------- next part --------------
An HTML attachment was scrubbed...
URL: <http://lists.openstack.org/pipermail/openstack/attachments/20160604/a3bc3338/attachment.html>