Hello, Is it true that a traffic from one OpenStack virtual network to another have to pass by an OpenStack router ? (using an OpenVirtual switch as the L2 ). I'm trying ti use a VM as a router between 2 OpenStack virtual networks but for some reason I'm not able. Appreciate any insights, Best regards, Abbass -------------- next part -------------- An HTML attachment was scrubbed... URL: <http://lists.openstack.org/pipermail/openstack-dev/attachments/20131220/fb29ec8a/attachment.html>